marcustucker73 marcustucker73
  • 22-07-2017
  • Mathematics
contestada

Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

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irspow
irspow irspow
  • 22-07-2017
Since f(x) has a domain and range of all real numbers, it's inverse also has a domain and range of all real numbers.  Furthermore since every value pair of (x,y) for f(x) is unique, its inverse will also have the inverse unique value pairs (y,x).
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billybobman123 billybobman123
  • 16-04-2019

Answer:

f(x) is a one to one function

Step-by-step explanation:

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