haya9
haya9 haya9
  • 22-11-2021
  • Mathematics
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Respuesta :

LammettHash
LammettHash LammettHash
  • 22-11-2021

With some simplification,

cos⁻¹(x) - 5 cos⁻¹(x) - π/3 = 2π/3

becomes

-4 cos⁻¹(x) = π

or

cos⁻¹(x) = -π/4

However, the inverse cosine function has a range of 0 ≤ cos⁻¹(x) ≤ π, so there are no solutions to this equation.

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